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Sample Final

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

1. 

____ is a category of output that includes memorandum, letters, announcements, press releases, and reports.
a.
Text
c.
Audio
b.
Graphics
d.
Video
 

2. 

____ is a category of output that includes drawings, clip art, and photographs.
a.
Text
c.
Audio
b.
Graphics
d.
Video
 

3. 

____ is a category of output that includes music, narrations, and speeches.
a.
Text
c.
Audio
b.
Graphics
d.
Video
 

4. 

____ is a category of output that includes prerecorded news reports, movies, and performances.
a.
Text
c.
Audio
b.
Graphics
d.
Video
 

5. 

Two types of display devices are ____ displays.
a.
ink-jet and laser
c.
impact and nonimpact
b.
CRT and flat-panel
d.
label and postage
 

6. 

A ____ is a large, sealed glass tube on the front of which is a screen coated with phosphor material.
a.
cathode-ray tube (CRT)
c.
high-definition tube (HDT)
b.
gas plasma tube (GPT)
d.
digital video tube (DVT)
 

7. 

A monitor is measured in the same way as a television is measured, that is ____.
a.
vertically from the top corner of the casing to the bottom
b.
horizontally from the left corner of the casing to the right
c.
diagonally from one corner of the casing to the other
d.
in square units that indicate the area of the screen
 

8. 

Standard CRT monitors today usually display up to a maximum of ____ pixels.
a.
16 x 12
c.
1600 x 1200
b.
160 x 120
d.
16,000 x 12,000
 

9. 

To be safe, all high-quality CRT monitors comply with ____ standards, which is a set of standards that defines acceptable levels of EMR for a monitor.
a.
MPR I
c.
CRT I
b.
MPR II
d.
CRT II
 

10. 

An 8-bit video card (also called 8-bit color) uses 8 bits to store information about each pixel, and thus can display ____ different colors.
a.
8
c.
64
b.
16
d.
256
 

11. 

Most current video cards support the ____ standard, which also supports resolution and color in the VGA standard.
a.
Extra Video Graphics Array (EVGA)
b.
Monochrome Display Adapter (MDA)
c.
Super Video Graphics Array (SVGA)
d.
Color Display Adapter (CDA)
 

12. 

____ is a type of video memory used by video cards.
a.
VRAM (Video RAM)
b.
WRAM (Window RAM)
c.
SGRAM (Synchronous graphics RAM)
d.
all of the above
 

13. 

Flat panel displays have a much smaller ____ than do CRT monitors; that is, they take up less desk space.
a.
fingerprint
c.
footprint
b.
handprint
d.
microprint
 

14. 

Flat panel monitors and LCD screens produce color using either ____ technology.
a.
CRT or gas plasma
c.
ink-jet or dot-matrix
b.
impact or nonimpact
d.
passive matrix or active matrix
 

15. 

A ____ is a unit of visible light intensity equal to one candela (formerly called candlepower) per square meter.
a.
nit
c.
cit
b.
bit
d.
hit
 

16. 

Newer video cards have ____ ports, some of which send both digital and analog signals to a monitor.
a.
CRT
c.
DVI
b.
LCD
d.
MPR
 

17. 

Digital television signals ____.
a.
produce a lower-quality picture than analog signals
b.
can broadcast only one program on a single digital channel
c.
currently are broadcast by a limited number of U.S. television stations
d.
all of the above
 

18. 

Uses of interactive TV include ____.
a.
selecting a movie from a central library of movies
b.
voting or responding to a network questionnaire
c.
banking and shopping
d.
all of the above
 

19. 

All of the following usually use portrait orientation except ____.
a.
spreadsheets
c.
reports
b.
letters
d.
books
 

20. 

A printer connects by a cable to a ____ port.
a.
serial port or IrDA
c.
FireWire or MIDI
b.
parallel port or USB
d.
SCSI or Bluetooth
 

21. 

The speed of a dot-matrix printer is measured by the number of ____ it can print.
a.
characters per second (cps)
c.
pages per second (pps)
b.
characters per minute (cpm)
d.
pages per minute (ppm)
 

22. 

Commonly used nonimpact printers include all of the following except ____.
a.
ink-jet printers and photo printers
b.
laser printers and thermal printers
c.
portable printers and label and postage printers
d.
shuttle-matrix printers and dot-matrix printers
 

23. 

The speed of an ink-jet printer is measured by the number of ____ it can print.
a.
characters per second (cps)
c.
pages per second (pps)
b.
characters per minute (cpm)
d.
pages per minute (ppm)
 

24. 

Print cartridges for ink-jet printers cost approximately ____ each.
a.
$10
c.
$50
b.
$30
d.
$70
 

25. 

Many inexpensive photo printers use ____ technology.
a.
ink-jet
c.
dot-matrix
b.
laser
d.
thermal
 
 
cis120finalsample_files/i0270000.jpg
 

26. 

A(n) ____, such as that diagrammed in the accompanying figure, is a high-speed, high-quality nonimpact printer.
a.
laser printer
c.
thermal printer
b.
ink-jet printer
d.
dot-matrix printer
 

27. 

Laser printers, such as that diagrammed in the accompanying figure, use software that enables them to interpret a ____, which tells the printer how to lay out the contents of a printed page.
a.
unified modeling language (UML)
c.
object-oriented language (OOL)
b.
page description language (PDL)
d.
hypertext markup language (HTML)
 

28. 

Professionals in the desktop publishing and graphic art fields commonly use ____ because it is designed for complex documents with intense graphics and colors.
a.
PCL
c.
UML
b.
PageScript
d.
PostScript
 

29. 

Basic thermal printers are ____ over time.
a.
inexpensive, but the print quality is low and the messages tend to fade
b.
inexpensive, but the print quality is high and the messages tend to last
c.
expensive, but the print quality high although the messages tend to fade
d.
expensive, but the print quality is low although the messages tend to last
 

30. 

Dye-sublimation printers for the home or small business user typically print images in ____ than their professional counterparts.
a.
a wide range of sizes and are much faster
b.
a wide range of sizes but are much slower
c.
only one or two sizes but are much faster
d.
only one or two sizes and are much slower
 

31. 

Portable printers mainly use any of the following technologies except ____ technology.
a.
ink-jet
c.
thermal
b.
laser
d.
dye-sublimation
 

32. 

____ are used in specialized fields such as engineering and drafting and usually are very costly.
a.
Plotters
c.
Postage printers
b.
Photo printers
d.
Thermal printers
 

33. 

Bluetooth printing is more convenient than infrared printing because Bluetooth devices ____ an approximate 30-foot range.
a.
do not have to be aligned and can be outside
b.
have to be aligned but must be within
c.
do not have to be aligned but must be within
d.
have to be aligned and can be outside
 

34. 

To make programs easier to use in Windows XP, the ____ command can be used to enlarge text and other items in a window on the screen.
a.
Accessibility Wizard
c.
Utility Manager
b.
Narrator
d.
Magnifier
 

35. 

To start up, a computer locates ____.
a.
application software in storage and loads it into memory
b.
application software in memory and loads it onto storage
c.
an operating system in storage and loads it into memory
d.
an operating system in memory and loads it onto storage
 

36. 

Examples of nonvolatile storage media include all of the following except ____.
a.
memory
c.
microfiche
b.
floppy disks
d.
PC Cards
 

37. 

Storage devices access items in ____.
a.
thousandths of a second (milliseconds)
c.
billionths of a second (nanoseconds)
b.
millionths of a second (microseconds)
d.
trillionths of a second (picoseconds)
 

38. 

Transfer rates for disks are stated in ____.
a.
KBps (kilobytes per second) and MBps (megabytes per second)
b.
MBps (megabytes per second) and GBps (gigabytes per second)
c.
GBps (gigabytes per second) and TBps (terabytes per second)
d.
TBps (terabytes per second) and PBps (petabytes per second)
 

39. 

Today, the standard floppy disk is ____-inches wide and has a rigid plastic outer cover.
a.
8
c.
3.5
b.
4.75
d.
5.25
 

40. 

If a personal computer has one floppy disk drive, it is named drive ____.
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
 

41. 

A lower-density floppy disk drive ____ a high-density floppy disk.
a.
can read from and write on
c.
cannot write on but can read from
b.
cannot read from but can write on
d.
cannot read from or write on
 

42. 

The actual number of available bytes on a floppy disk is 1,474,560, yet manufacturers call them ____ MB disks.
a.
1.4
c.
1.44
b.
1.47
d.
1.5
 

43. 

To avoid damaging a floppy disk, do all of the following except ____.
a.
avoid exposing the disk to heat, cold, or magnetic fields
b.
open the disk’s shutter and touch its recording surface
c.
avoid contaminants such as dust, smoke, or salt air
d.
keep the disk in a storage tray that allows it to stand vertically
 

44. 

A floppy disk drive ____.
a.
can read from a floppy disk only if the write-protect notch is open
b.
can read from a floppy disk only if the write-protect notch is closed
c.
can read from a floppy disk whether the write-protect notch is open or closed
d.
cannot read from a floppy disk whether the write-protect notch is open or closed
 

45. 

The large capacity Zip disks hold about ____ times more than a standard floppy disk.
a.
200
c.
400
b.
300
d.
500
 

46. 

Zip disks are slightly ____ as thick as a 3.5-inch floppy disk.
a.
smaller and about half
c.
larger and about half
b.
smaller and about twice
d.
larger and about twice
 

47. 

Current personal computer hard disks have storage capacities from 40 to 160 ____ and more.
a.
KB
c.
MB
b.
GB
d.
PB
 

48. 

Like ____, hard disks store data magnetically.
a.
floppy disks and Zip disks
c.
tape and DVDs
b.
CDs and microfilm
d.
all of the above
 

49. 

If the computer contains only one hard disk, the operating system designates it as drive ____.
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
 
 
cis120finalsample_files/i0520000.jpg
 

50. 

A ____ on a hard disk, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, is made of aluminum, glass, or ceramic and is coated with an alloy material that allows items to be recorded magnetically in its surface.
a.
cluster
c.
read/write head
b.
platter
d.
cache
 

51. 

While the computer is running, the platters in a hard disk (such as that shown in the accompanying figure) usually rotate at ____, which allows nearly instant access to all tracks and sectors.
a.
54 to 72 revolutions per minute (rpm)
b.
5,400 to 7,200 revolutions per second (rps)
c.
54 to 72 revolutions per hour (rph)
d.
5,400 to 7,200 revolutions per minute (rpm)
 

52. 

A ____ occurs when a read/write head touches the surface of a hard disk platter, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, usually resulting in a loss of data and sometimes loss of the entire drive.
a.
disk crash
c.
drive crash
b.
head crash
d.
data crash
 

53. 

A hard disk spins much ____.
a.
slower than a floppy disk and usually starts spinning only when it receives a read or write command
b.
slower than a floppy disk but usually spins constantly
c.
faster than a floppy disk but usually starts spinning only when it receives a read or write command
d.
faster than a floppy disk and usually spins constantly
 

54. 

An advantage of external hard disks and removable hard disks is that users can ____.
a.
transport a large number of files
b.
add storage space to a notebook computer
c.
share a drive with multiple computers
d.
all of the above
 

55. 

Users store data and information on an Internet hard drive to ____.
a.
save time by storing large files instantaneously
b.
allow others to access files
c.
store offsite backups of data
d.
all of the above
 

56. 

CDs and DVDs usually are ____ than one-twentieth of an inch thick.
a.
3.5 inches in diameter and less
c.
3.5 inches in diameter and more
b.
4.75 inches in diameter and less
d.
4.75 inches in diameter and more
 

57. 

The drive designation of a CD or DVD drive usually ____.
a.
precedes alphabetically before that of all the hard disks and portable disks
b.
comes alphabetically between that of the hard disks and portable disks
c.
follows alphabetically after that of all the hard disks and portable disks
d.
comes alphabetically between that of the portable disks and hard disks
 

58. 

CDs and DVDs commonly store items in ____.
a.
random locations anywhere between the center of the disc and the edge of the disc
b.
multiple pie-shaped sections that break a track into arcs
c.
a single track that spirals from the center of the disc to the edge of the disc
d.
multiple concentric tracks from the center of the disc to the edge of the disc
 

59. 

A standard CD-ROM is called a ____ disc because manufacturers write all items on the disc at one time.
a.
multisession
c.
unisession
b.
single-session
d.
compound-session
 

60. 

A typical CD-ROM holds from 650 MB to 1 GB of data, instructions, and information, which is equivalent to about ____ high-density 3.5-inch floppy disks.
a.
4.5
c.
450
b.
45
d.
4500
 

61. 

Manufacturers measure the speed of all CD-ROM drives relative to the original CD-ROM drive, using an X to denote the original transfer rate of 150 ____.
a.
KBps (kilobytes per second)
c.
GBps (gigabytes per second)
b.
MBps (megabytes per second)
d.
TBps (terabytes per second)
 

62. 

A standard CD-ROM drive can read a ____.
a.
DVD
c.
hard disk
b.
Picture CD
d.
all of the above
 

63. 

Originally called an erasable CD (CD-E), a ____ overcomes the major disadvantage of CD-R disks, which is being able to write on them only once.
a.
CD-ROM
c.
CD-RW
b.
DVD-ROM
d.
DVD-R
 

64. 

Manufacturers state the speeds of CD-RW drives in this order: ____.
a.
rewrite speed, write speed, and read speed
b.
write speed, read speed, and rewrite speed
c.
read speed, rewrite speed, and write speed
d.
write speed, rewrite speed, and read speed
 

65. 

The storage capacity of a DVD-ROM is ____ that of a CD-ROM because images are stored at higher resolutions.
a.
greater than a CD-ROM, and a DVD-ROM’s quality far surpasses
b.
less than a CD-ROM, but a DVD-ROM’s quality far surpasses
c.
greater than a CD-ROM, but a DVD-ROM’s quality is far less than
d.
less than a CD-ROM, and a DVD-ROM’s quality is far less than
 

66. 

A storage technique that a DVD-ROM can use to achieve a higher storage capacity than a CD-ROM is to ____.
a.
make the disc more dense by packing the pits closer together
b.
use two layers of pits
c.
be double-sided
d.
all of the above
 

67. 

DVD+RW drives can write on all of the following media except ____.
a.
CD-R
c.
CD-RW
b.
DVD+RAM
d.
DVD+RW
 

68. 

One of the first storage media used with mainframe computers was ____.
a.
Zip disks
c.
optical disks
b.
tape
d.
microfilm
 

69. 

Tape ____.
a.
no longer is used as a primary method of storage but is used most often for long-term storage and backup
b.
is used as a primary method of storage and for long-term storage and backup
c.
no longer is used for long-term storage and backup but is used most often as a primary method of storage
d.
no longer is used as a primary method of storage or for long-term storage and backup
 

70. 

A common type of tape drive is ____.
a.
digital audio tape
c.
quarter-inch cartridge
b.
digital linear tape
d.
all of the above
 

71. 

All of the following use direct access except ____.
a.
CDs and DVDs
c.
tape
b.
Zip disks
d.
floppy disks and hard disks
 

72. 

The difference in size among Type I, Type II, and Type III PC Cards is their ____.
a.
diameter
c.
thickness
b.
circumference
d.
all of the above
 

73. 

Common types of miniature mobile storage media include ____.
a.
CompactFlash (CD) and Smart Media
b.
Secure Digital (SD) and Memory Stick®
c.
Microdrive™ and USBDrive™
d.
all of the above
 

74. 

Miniature storage media are much smaller, lighter in weight, and ____.
a.
less portable than other storage media such as hard disks, and much more expensive
b.
more portable than other storage media such as hard disks, but much more expensive
c.
less portable than other storage media such as hard disks, but much more expensive
d.
more portable than other storage media such as hard disks, and much less expensive
 

75. 

Card readers usually connect to any of the following ports on the system unit except the ____.
a.
serial port
c.
parallel port
b.
USB port
d.
FireWire port
 

76. 

One popular use of ____ is to store a prepaid dollar amount, as in a prepaid telephone calling card.
a.
smart cards
c.
PC Cards
b.
floppy disks
d.
hard disks
 

77. 

Two types of system software are ____.
a.
application software and utility programs
b.
Web browsers and application software
c.
operating systems and utility programs
d.
operating systems and Web browsers
 

78. 

A cross-platform program is one that has ____ on multiple operating systems.
a.
one version and runs identically
b.
one version and runs differently
c.
multiple versions, and each version runs identically
d.
multiple versions, and each version runs differently
 

79. 

With Windows XP, a warm boot can be performed by ____.
a.
pressing a combination of keyboard keys (CTRL+ALT+DEL)
b.
selecting a button or an option from a list in a dialog box
c.
pressing the reset button on the computer
d.
all of the above
 

80. 

During a cold boot on a personal computer, the POST (power-on self test) results are compared with data in a ____ chip.
a.
CMOS
c.
BIOS
b.
UNIX
d.
SCSI
 

81. 

In Windows XP, the ____ contains a list of programs that open automatically when users boot the computer.
a.
Restore folder
c.
Swap folder
b.
Startup folder
d.
Backup folder
 

82. 

In a ____, a user types commands or presses special keys on the keyboard (such as function keys or key combinations) to enter data and instructions.
a.
command-line interface
c.
performance-monitor interface
b.
menu-driven interface
d.
graphical user interface (GUI)
 

83. 

A ____ provides lists of options as a means of entering commands.
a.
command-line interface
c.
performance-monitor interface
b.
menu-driven interface
d.
graphical user interface (GUI)
 

84. 

With a ____, users interact with menus and visual images such as icons, buttons, and other objects to issue commands.
a.
command-line interface
c.
performance-monitor interface
b.
menu-driven interface
d.
graphical user interface (GUI)
 

85. 

PDAs and other small computing devices often use a ____ operating system.
a.
single user/single tasking
c.
multiuser
b.
single user/multitasking
d.
multiprocessing
 

86. 

Networks, midrange servers, mainframes, and supercomputers allow hundreds to thousands of people to connect at the same time, and thus are ____.
a.
single user
c.
multiuser
b.
single processing
d.
multiprocessing
 
 
cis120finalsample_files/i0900000.jpg
 

87. 

With virtual memory, which is illustrated in the accompanying figure, a ____ is the amount of data and program instructions that can swap at a given time.
a.
log
c.
spool
b.
page
d.
boot
 

88. 

With virtual memory, which is illustrated in the accompanying figure, the technique of swapping items between memory and storage, called ____, is a time consuming process for the computer.
a.
logging
c.
spooling
b.
paging
d.
booting
 

89. 

With virtual memory, which is illustrated in the accompanying figure, when an operating system spends much of its time paging, instead of executing application software, it is said to be ____.
a.
zipping
c.
restoring
b.
compressing
d.
thrashing
 

90. 

If a new device, such as a printer or scanner, is attached to a computer, its ____ must be installed before the device can be used.
a.
driver
c.
manager
b.
platform
d.
kernel
 

91. 

A(n) ____ is a communications line between a device and the processor.
a.
disk operating system line (DOS)
c.
interrupt request line (IRQ)
b.
preemptive multitasking line (PMT)
d.
fault-tolerant computer line (FTC)
 

92. 

The person overseeing network operations, called the ____, uses the network OS to add and remove users, computers, and other devices to and from a network.
a.
network administrator
c.
network installer
b.
network operator
d.
network server
 

93. 

While entering a ____, most computers hide the actual characters by displaying some other characters, such as asterisks (*) or dots.
a.
user name
c.
user ID
b.
password
d.
all of the above
 

94. 

____ is the process of encoding data and information into an unreadable form.
a.
Encryption
c.
Transmission
b.
Formatting
d.
Spooling
 

95. 

Utility programs included with most operating systems provide all of the following functions except ____.
a.
managing files and viewing graphics files
b.
uninstalling programs and diagnosing problems
c.
removing viruses and compressing files
d.
backing up files and defragmenting disks
 

96. 

Windows XP includes a file manager called ____.
a.
Windows Picture and Fax Viewer
c.
DriveSpace
b.
Windows Explorer
d.
Dr. Watson
 

97. 

A ____ is an icon on the desktop that provides a user with immediate access to a program or file.
a.
kernel
c.
buffer
b.
spooler
d.
shortcut
 

98. 

Windows XP includes an image viewer called ____.
a.
Windows Picture and Fax Viewer
c.
DriveSpace
b.
Windows Explorer
d.
Dr. Watson
 

99. 

____ a disk, or reorganizing it so the files are stored in contiguous sectors, speeds up disk access and thus the performance of the entire computer.
a.
Formatting
c.
Spooling
b.
Defragmenting
d.
Compressing
 

100. 

Windows XP includes the diagnostic utility, ____, which diagnoses problems as well as suggests courses of action.
a.
Windows Picture and Fax Viewer
c.
DriveSpace
b.
Windows Explorer
d.
Dr. Watson
 

101. 

Many backup programs ____, or shrink the size of, files during the backup process.
a.
restore
c.
fragment
b.
register
d.
compress
 

102. 

Screen savers originally were developed to prevent a problem called ____, in which images could be permanently etched on a monitor’s screen.
a.
thrashing
c.
ghosting
b.
paging
d.
hacking
 

103. 

When first developed by Microsoft, ____ used a command-line interface, but later versions included both command-line and menu driven user interfaces.
a.
Windows XP
c.
Mac OS X
b.
DOS
d.
UNIX
 

104. 

____ is available in three editions: Home Edition, Professional, and Tablet PC Edition.
a.
Windows XP
c.
OS/2 Warp Client
b.
Linux
d.
DOS
 

105. 

The ____ is an upgrade to Windows Millennium Edition.
a.
Windows XP Home Edition
c.
Windows XP Professional
b.
Windows XP Tablet PC Edition
d.
Windows XP Specialist
 

106. 

____ includes features from previous Apple computer operating systems, such as large photo-quality icons, built-in networking support, and enhanced speech recognition.
a.
DOS
c.
Linux
b.
UNIX
d.
Mac OS X
 

107. 

____ has been used by businesses because of IBM’s long association with business computing and the operating system’s strong networking support.
a.
Mac OS X
c.
UNIX
b.
Windows XP
d.
OS/2
 

108. 

Bell Labs licensed ____ for a low fee to numerous colleges and universities, where the operating system obtained a wide following.
a.
Linux
c.
UNIX
b.
OS/2
d.
Windows XP
 

109. 

The two most popular GUIs available for ____ are GNOME and KDE.
a.
DOS
c.
Mac OS X
b.
Windows XP
d.
Linux
 

110. 

Examples of network operating systems include all of the following except ____.
a.
NetWare and Windows .NET Server
b.
OS/2 Warp Server for e-business and Solaris
c.
DOS and Pocket PC 2002
d.
UNIX and Linux
 

111. 

The Windows .NET Server family includes ____ for medium- to large-sized businesses, including those with e-commerce operations.
a.
Windows .NET Standard Server
c.
Windows .NET Datacenter Server
b.
Windows .NET Enterprise Server
d.
Windows .NET Web Server
 

112. 

The Windows .NET Server family includes ____ for businesses with huge volumes of transactions and large-scale databases.
a.
Windows .NET Standard Server
c.
Windows .NET Datacenter Server
b.
Windows .NET Enterprise Server
d.
Windows .NET Web Server
 

113. 

Like Linux, ____ is a multipurpose operating system because it is both a stand-alone and network operating system.
a.
NetWare
c.
Mac OS X
b.
UNIX
d.
OS/2 Warp Server for e-business
 

114. 

Popular embedded operating systems include all of the following except ____.
a.
Windows CE .NET
c.
Pocket PC 2002
b.
Palm OS and Symbian OS
d.
NetWare and Linux
 

115. 

____, which is used on PDAs such as the Sony CLIE, supports handwriting recognition software called Graffiti.
a.
Palm OS
c.
Pocket PC 2002
b.
Symbian OS
d.
Windows CE .NET
 

116. 

With ____, which is designed for smart phones, users input data by pressing keys on the keypad or keyboard, touching the screen, writing on the screen with a small stylus, or speaking into the smart phone.
a.
Palm OS
c.
Pocket PC 2002
b.
Symbian OS
d.
Windows CE .NET
 

117. 

A ____ is a program that acts without a user’s knowledge and deliberately alters a computer’s operations.
a.
malicious-logic program
c.
system software program
b.
utility program
d.
diagnostic program
 

118. 

A ____ does not replicate itself to other computers.
a.
virus
c.
Trojan horse
b.
worm
d.
all of the above
 

119. 

Compressing files ____ system performance.
a.
demands extra room on the storage media and impairs
b.
demands extra room on the storage media but improves
c.
frees up room on the storage media but impairs
d.
frees up room on the storage media and improves
 

120. 

The term ____ refers to online or Internet-based illegal acts.
a.
malicious-logic program
c.
cybercrime
b.
computer crime
d.
system failure
 

121. 

A ____ copies itself repeatedly in memory or on a network, using up resources and possibly shutting down the computer or network.
a.
computer virus
c.
Trojan horse
b.
worm
d.
all of the above
 

122. 

A ____ is a malicious-logic program that hides within or looks like a legitimate program and usually is triggered by a certain condition or action.
a.
computer virus
c.
Trojan horse
b.
worm
d.
all of the above
 

123. 

The ____ is the destructive event or prank a malicious-logic program is intended to deliver.
a.
zombie
c.
cracker
b.
hash
d.
payload
 

124. 

Computer viruses, worms, and Trojan horses deliver their payload on a computer when a user ____.
a.
opens an infected file
b.
runs an infected program
c.
boots the computer with an infected disk in a disk drive
d.
all of the above
 

125. 

Some viruses are hidden in ____, which are instructions saved in an application such as a word processing or spreadsheet program.
a.
macros
c.
cookies
b.
logs
d.
spikes
 

126. 

To ____ a program file, an antivirus program records information such as the file size and file creation date in a separate file.
a.
quarantine
c.
blackout
b.
decrypt
d.
inoculate
 

127. 

A ____ is a separate area of a hard disk that holds an infected file until the infection can be removed.
a.
quarantine
c.
firewall
b.
payload
d.
honeypot
 

128. 

A honeypot is a program designed to ____.
a.
negatively affect the way a computer works
b.
entice an intruder to hack into a computer
c.
identify and remove computer viruses found in memory
d.
secretly collect information about a user
 

129. 

Each character added to a password significantly ____ it might take for someone or for a hacker’s computer to guess the password.
a.
reduces the number of combinations and the length of time
b.
reduces the number of combinations but increases the length of time
c.
increases the number of combinations but reduces the length of time
d.
increases the number of combinations and the length of time
 

130. 

Examples of biometric devices and systems include all of the following except ____.
a.
fingerprint scanners and hand geometry systems
b.
face recognition systems and voice recognition systems
c.
signature verification systems and iris recognition systems
d.
personal identification numbers and password systems
 

131. 

To help reduce the chance of ____, physical controls such as locked doors and cables usually are adequate to protect equipment.
a.
software piracy
c.
system failure
b.
hardware theft
d.
unauthorized access
 

132. 

Some notebook computers use ____ as methods of security.
a.
passwords
c.
biometrics
b.
possessed objects
d.
all of the above
 

133. 

When users purchase software, a single-user license agreement permits users to do any of the following except ____.
a.
install the software on only one computer
b.
rent or lease the software
c.
make one copy of the software as backup
d.
give or sell the software to another individual if the software is removed from the user’s computer first
 

134. 

When users purchase software, a single-user license agreement does not permit users to do any of the following except ____.
a.
install the software on a network
b.
give copies to friends and colleagues
c.
make one copy of the software as backup
d.
export the software
 

135. 

Software piracy continues for all of the following reasons except ____.
a.
software piracy drives down the price of software for all users
b.
in some countries, legal protection for software does not exist
c.
software piracy is a fairly simple crime to commit
d.
many buyers believe they have the right to copy software they have paid for
 

136. 

To promote a better understanding of software piracy problems and, if necessary, to take legal action, a number of major worldwide software companies formed the ____.
a.
Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT)
b.
Business Software Alliance (BSA)
c.
Underwriters Laboratory (UL)
d.
Virtual Private Network (VPN)
 

137. 

In its simplest form, a(n) ____ is a programmed formula that the recipient of encrypted data uses to decrypt the ciphertext.
a.
encryption key
c.
digital certificate
b.
virus signature
d.
session cookie
 

138. 

One of the more common causes of ____ is an electrical power variation.
a.
hardware vandalism
c.
unauthorized access
b.
system failure
d.
software theft
 

139. 

A ____ is the unit of energy a surge protection device can absorb before it can be damaged.
a.
Joule
c.
hash
b.
spike
d.
macro
 

140. 

A UPS connects between a computer and a ____.
a.
peripheral device
c.
communications device
b.
disk drive
d.
power supply
 

141. 

A(n) ____ copies all of the files in a computer.
a.
full backup
c.
differential backup
b.
incremental backup
d.
selective backup
 

142. 

With a(n) ____, users choose which folders and files to include in a backup.
a.
full backup
c.
differential backup
b.
incremental backup
d.
selective backup
 

143. 

With a three-generation backup policy, the grandparent is the ____.
a.
most recent copy of the file
c.
oldest copy of the file
b.
second oldest copy of the file
d.
original file
 

144. 

With a three-generation backup policy, the child is the ____.
a.
most recent copy of the file
c.
oldest copy of the file
b.
second oldest copy of the file
d.
original file
 

145. 

The computer that a hacker uses to execute a DoS or DDoS attack, known as a ____, is completely unaware that it is being used to attack other systems.
a.
cookie
c.
zombie
b.
proxy
d.
standby
 

146. 

____, which provides encryption of all data that passes between a client and an Internet server, requires only that the client has a digital certificate.
a.
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
b.
Secure HTTP (S-HTTP)
c.
Secure Electronics Transactions (SET™) Specifications
d.
Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)
 

147. 

The ____ uses encryption to secure financial transactions on the Internet.
a.
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
b.
Secure HTTP (S-HTTP)
c.
Secure Electronics Transactions (SET™) Specifications
d.
Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)
 

148. 

To make personal data more private, users should do all of the following except ____.
a.
install a cookie manager to manage cookies
b.
avoid shopping club and buyer cards
c.
fill in only necessary information on rebate, warranty, and registration forms
d.
purchase goods with credit or checks, rather than cash
 

149. 

A ____ is a small text file that a Web server stores on a user’s computer.
a.
worm
c.
cookie
b.
spike
d.
payload
 

150. 

Web sites use cookies for all of the following purposes except ____.
a.
to conceal how regularly users visit a site
b.
to track user preferences
c.
to store users’ passwords
d.
to target advertisements
 

151. 

Internet advertising firms often use spyware, called ____, to collect information about user’s Web browsing habits.
a.
comware
c.
adware
b.
postware
d.
billware
 
 
cis120finalsample_files/i1560000.jpg
 

152. 

A ____, like that shown in the accompanying figure, is an unsolicited e-mail message or newsgroup posting sent to many recipients or newsgroups at once.
a.
hash
c.
worm
b.
spam
d.
spike
 

153. 

To avoid spam like that shown in the accompanying figure, users can sign up for ____, which is a service form an Internet service provider that blocks e-mail messages from designated sources.
a.
an anti-spam program
c.
an antivirus program
b.
e-mail encryption
d.
e-mail filtering
 

154. 

The 1986 ____ provides the same protection that covers mail and telephone communications to electronic communications such as voice mail.
a.
Electronic Communications Privacy Act (ECPA)
b.
Fair Credit Reporting Act
c.
Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
d.
Computer Matching and Privacy Protection Act
 

155. 

The 1988 _____ regulates the use of government data to determine the eligibility of individuals for federal benefits.
a.
Electronic Communications Privacy Act (ECPA)
b.
Fair Credit Reporting Act
c.
Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
d.
Computer Matching and Privacy Protection Act
 

156. 

The 1984 and 1994 ____ outlaw unauthorized access to federal government computers and the transmission of harmful computer code such as viruses.
a.
Electronic Communications Privacy Acts (ECPA)
b.
Fair Credit Reporting Acts
c.
Computer Fraud and Abuse Acts
d.
Computer Matching and Privacy Protection Acts
 

157. 

The 1970 ____ limits the rights of those viewing a credit report to only those with a legitimate business need, but does not define a legitimate business need.
a.
Electronic Communications Privacy Act (ECPA)
b.
Fair Credit Reporting Act
c.
Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
d.
Computer Matching and Privacy Protection Act
 

158. 

The Bureau of Labor Statistics reports that work-related musculoskeletal disorders account for ____ of all job-related injuries and illnesses.
a.
one-fifth
c.
one-third
b.
one-fourth
d.
one-half
 

159. 

To prevent repetitive strain injury, take all of the following precautions except ____.
a.
place a wrist rest between the keyboard and the edge of the desk
b.
use the heel of the hand as a pivot point while typing or using the mouse
c.
place the mouse at least six inches from the edge of the desk
d.
minimize the number of switches between the mouse and the keyboard
 

160. 

____ is an applied science devoted to incorporating comfort, efficiency, and safety into the design of items in the workplace.
a.
Ergonomics
c.
Epidemics
b.
Eurhythmics
d.
Econometrics
 

161. 

Users should be sure their CRT monitor adheres to the ____, which defines acceptable levels of radiation.
a.
CPS II standard
c.
CVS II standard
b.
MSD II standard
d.
MPR II standard
 

162. 

Symptoms of a user with computer addiction include all of the following except ____.
a.
craves computer time
c.
neglects family and friends
b.
unable to stop computer activity
d.
irritable when at the computer
 

163. 

The Information Technology Association of America estimates that the current computer workforce is about ____ new computer-related jobs available annually.
a.
100,000 workers with an expected net increase of about 1,000
b.
1 million workers with an expected net increase of about 10,000
c.
10 million workers with an expected net increase of about 100,000
d.
100 million workers with an expected net increase of about 1 million
 

164. 

Job opportunities in the computer industry generally fall into these areas: ____.
a.
general business and government organizations and the computer service and repair industry
b.
the computer equipment industry, the computer software industry, and computer sales
c.
the computer education and training industry and the computer consulting industry
d.
all of the above
 

165. 

Jobs in the ____ include designing and fabricating computer chips, testing internal components, assembling computers, and packing computers and peripherals.
a.
computer equipment industry
b.
computer software industry
c.
computer service and repair industry
d.
computer education and training industry
 

166. 

Computer equipment manufacturers include all of the following companies except ____.
a.
Apple Computer and Hewlett-Packard
b.
Network Associates and Red Hat
c.
Gateway and Lucent Technologies
d.
Intel and Dell Computer
 

167. 

Job titles for careers related to the ____ include project developer, programmer, software engineer, and computer scientist.
a.
computer equipment industry
b.
computer software industry
c.
computer service and repair industry
d.
computer education and training industry
 

168. 

Leading software companies include all of the following except ____.
a.
Computer Associates and Macromedia
c.
AMD and Logitech
b.
Oracle and Novell
d.
Sybase and Symantec
 

169. 

The largest software company, ____, has more than 300 products and technologies.
a.
Microsoft
c.
BMC Software
b.
Adobe Systems
d.
Intuit
 
 
cis120finalsample_files/i1750000.jpg
 

170. 

Computer manufacturers, software vendors, and retailers usually pay sales representatives, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, based on ____.
a.
an hourly wage
c.
the number of customers contacted
b.
a yearly salary
d.
the amount of product they sell
 

171. 

____, which is a main area of an IT department, directs the planning, research, development, evaluation, and integration of technology.
a.
Management
c.
Operations
b.
End-user computing
d.
Technical services
 

172. 

____, which is a main area of an IT department, analyzes, designs, develops, and implements new information technology and improves existing systems.
a.
Technical services
b.
System development and programming
c.
End-user computing
d.
Management
 

173. 

Job titles in the management area of an IT department include all of the following except ____.
a.
project leader
c.
project manager
b.
desktop publisher
d.
e-commerce administrator
 

174. 

A ____ installs, configures, and maintains LANs, WANs, intranets, and Internet systems.
a.
network administrator
c.
project manager
b.
software engineer
d.
data communications analyst
 

175. 

Job titles in the system development and programming area of an IT department include all of the following except ____.
a.
database administrator
c.
systems analyst
b.
application programmer
d.
Web developer
 

176. 

The ____ directs a company’s information service and communications functions.
a.
computer operator
b.
quality assurance specialist
c.
vice president of IT/chief information officer (CIO)
d.
network security specialist
 

177. 

A ____ works with the analyst, programmer, and user to create system documentation and user materials.
a.
desktop publisher
c.
technical writer
b.
computer operator
d.
graphic designer/illustrator
 

178. 

____, which is a main area in an IT department, evaluates and integrates new technologies, administers an organization’s data resources, and supports the centralized computer operating system or servers.
a.
Operations
b.
End-user computing
c.
Technical services
d.
System development and programming
 

179. 

____, which is a main area in an IT department, assists users in working with existing systems and in using software and query languages to obtain the information necessary to perform their jobs.
a.
Management
c.
Operations
b.
End-user computing
d.
Technical services
 

180. 

Job titles in the technical services area of an IT department include all of the following except ____.
a.
database administrator
c.
Web graphic designer
b.
graphic designer/illustrator
d.
e-commerce administrator
 

181. 

A ____ oversees Web site performance and maintains links between a company’s Web server and Internet access provider.
a.
Web programmer
c.
Web graphic designer
b.
Web administrator
d.
Webmaster
 

182. 

____ is a job title in the operations area of an IT department.
a.
Project leader
c.
Project manager
b.
Database analyst
d.
Data communications analyst
 

183. 

____ is a job title in the end-user computing area of an IT department.
a.
Software engineer
c.
Help desk specialist
b.
Webmaster
d.
Systems analyst
 

184. 

A ____ installs, maintains, repairs, and troubleshoots hardware and installs, upgrades, and configures software.
a.
project leader
c.
database administrator
b.
Web graphic designer
d.
computer technician
 

185. 

Entry-level jobs for graduating ____ students include applications programmer, graphic designer, Web programmer, technical writer, computer operator, computer technician, help desk specialist, computer sales representative, and computer consultant.
a.
computer information systems (CIS)
c.
computer science (CS)
b.
software engineering (SE)
d.
computer engineering (CE)
 

186. 

Entry-level jobs for graduating ____ students include database analyst, software engineer, systems programmer, computer technician, and computer consultant.
a.
computer engineering (CE)
c.
computer technology (CT)
b.
computer science (CS)
d.
computer information systems (CIS)
 

187. 

A primary way to keep up-do-date on industry trends and technologies, to develop new skills, and to increase recognition among peers in the computer industry is through ____.
a.
professional organizations
c.
continuing education activities
b.
certification
d.
all of the above
 

188. 

Both ACM (Association for Computing Machinery) and AITP (Association of Information Technology Professionals) offer ____.
a.
chapters for both professionals and students
b.
workshops, seminars, and conventions
c.
programs to help with continuing education
d.
all of the above
 

189. 

Some ____, such as COMPUTERWORLD and InfoWorld, are similar to newspapers and cover a wide range of issues.
a.
professional organizations
c.
magazines
b.
trade shows
d.
trade schools
 

190. 

When choosing a certification, computer users should do all of the following except ____.
a.
consider their career path during the long term
b.
rely on the advice of people in unrelated fields
c.
assess their background and experience
d.
research certifications to find those that best match their needs
 

191. 

Flexible ____ programs help professionals prepare for certification at their own pace and supplement other training methods.
a.
self-study
c.
instructor-led training
b.
online training
d.
Web resource
 

192. 

____ is available in a variety of forms, including seminars, boot camps, and academic-style classes.
a.
Self-study
c.
Instructor-led training
b.
Online training
d.
Web resource
 

193. 

If a certification exam is not passed, the test-taker must ____.
a.
pay the fee again to retake the test
c.
never take the test again
b.
immediately retake the test at no cost
d.
complete a remedial course of study
 

194. 

People who may be interested in ____ include computer consultants, hardware technicians, help desk operators, network security specialists, and system administrators.
a.
database system certification
c.
operating system certification
b.
programming certification
d.
Internet certification
 

195. 

People who may be interested in ____ include Java programmers, Oracle database managers, programming consultants, SQL programmers, and Web page designers.
a.
Internet certification
c.
application software certification
b.
networking certification
d.
programming certification
 

196. 

____ is a programming certification that tests knowledge of developing XML applications and Web services.
a.
IBM Certified Developer
c.
Certified Novell Administrator
b.
Adobe Certified Expert
d.
Sybase Certified Professional
 

197. 

People who may be interested in ____ include hardware service technicians, network consultants, network managers, network engineers, and system administrators.
a.
hardware certification
c.
networking certification
b.
application software certification
d.
operating system certification
 

198. 

____ is a certification that tests advanced knowledge of installing, configuring, and operating LANs and WANs.
a.
Certified Internet Webmaster (CIW)
b.
IBM eServer Certified Specialist
c.
Certified Web Professional (CWP)
d.
Cisco Certified Network Professional (CCNP)
 

199. 

People who may be interested in ____ include Internet and intranet managers, Internet service provider staff, network administrators, Webmasters, Web page designers, and Web programmers.
a.
hardware certification
c.
Internet certification
b.
application software certification
d.
operating systems certification
 

200. 

People who might be interested in ____ include database administrators, database analysts, database application developers, database designers.
a.
networking certification
c.
hardware certification
b.
operating systems certification
d.
database system certification
 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
 

201. 

An advantage of digital controls on a monitor is that they allow users quickly to return to the default settings by pressing a reset button.
 

202. 

The smaller the distance between pixels on a CRT monitor, the less clear the image.
 

203. 

Developed by the Digital Display Working Group (DDWG), a DVI port accepts digital signals directly, eliminating the need for the analog to digital conversion.
 

204. 

Large business users or power users sometimes have gas plasma displays, which often measure more than 50-inches wide.
 

205. 

A hard copy, also called a printout, is either in portrait or landscape orientation.
 

206. 

A printout in portrait orientation is wider than it is tall, with information printed across the widest part of the paper.
 

207. 

A printout in landscape orientation is taller than it is wide, with information printed across the shorter width of the paper.
 

208. 

A fax modem can be an external device that plugs into a port on the back of the system unit or an internal adapter card inserted into an expansion slot on the motherboard.
 

209. 

Hearing-impaired users can instruct programs to display words instead of sounds.
 

210. 

Instead of, or in addition to access time, some manufacturers state a storage device’s transfer rate because it affects access time.
 

211. 

Users work with floppy disks to transport small files to and from non-networked personal computers.
 

212. 

The system unit on most desktop and notebook computers contains at least one hard disk.
 

213. 

The average hard disk access time is at least seven times slower than the average floppy disk drive.
 

214. 

When a program needs data, instructions, or information, the processor checks the disk cache.
 

215. 

A disk controller for a hard disk, called the hard disk controller, may be part of a hard disk or may be a separate adapter card inside the system unit.
 

216. 

SCSI controllers are slower than EIDE controllers, providing less than 16 MBps transfer rates.
 

217. 

Movies on DVD have a grainy-quality video, which is far inferior to VHS tapes.
 

218. 

Although older tape drives use tape cartridges, today’s computers use reel-to-reel tape drives.
 

219. 

When writing or reading specific data, direct access is much slower than sequential access.
 

220. 

Originally, PC Cards were called PCMCIA cards.
 

221. 

Miniature hard disks are magnetic media and operate like their desktop-sized counterparts — just on a smaller scale.
 

222. 

When a computer is turned on, the charge of electricity causes the processor chip to reset itself and find the ROM chip(s) that contains the BIOS.
 

223. 

If application software has stopped responding and the hard disk’s LED blinks repeatedly, the operating system probably is thrashing.
 

224. 

Information in the report from a diagnostic utility assists technical support staff in remedying any problems.
 

225. 

When users press a key or move the mouse, a screen saver disappears and the screen returns to the previous state.
 

226. 

A device-dependent program runs on computers provided by a variety of manufacturers.
 

227. 

In addition to running programs written specifically for OS/2, OS/2 also runs DOS and most Windows programs.
 

228. 

Like other operating systems, Linux is proprietary software.
 

229. 

To protect a computer from virus attacks, install an antivirus program and update it frequently.
 

230. 

A company’s AUP (acceptable use policy) should specify the acceptable use of computers by employees for personal reasons.
 

231. 

Personal firewalls constantly monitor all transmissions to and from a computer and inform users of any attempted intrusion.
 

232. 

To protect a personal computer from unauthorized intrusions, users should enable file and printer sharing on their Internet connections.
 

233. 

Examples of possessed objects are badges, cards, smart cards, and keys.
 

234. 

The best preventive measures against hardware theft and vandalism are common sense and a constant awareness of the risk.
 

235. 

Typically, the amount of protection offered by a surge protector is inversely proportional to its cost; that is, the more expensive, the less protection the protector offers.
 

236. 

Many surge protectors include plug-ins for telephone line and other cables.
 

237. 

A growing trend is to use an Internet hard drive as an offsite location for backup copies.
 

238. 

The National Photographers Association believes that allowing even the slightest alteration could lead to misrepresentations in photographs.
 

239. 

People who spend their workday using a computer sometimes complain of lower back pain, muscle fatigue, and emotional fatigue.
 

240. 

Manufacturers are beginning to incorporate recycling fees into new computer and component costs.
 

241. 

Nearly every organization uses computers for basic document preparation.
 

242. 

Government offices use computers and the Web to provide the public with a means to access their facilities.
 

243. 

Even experienced corporate computer sales representatives are among an organization’s least highly paid employees.
 

244. 

Many companies hire a computer consultant to fill in for an employee on an extended leave of absence.
 

245. 

In addition to computer-related skills, CIS majors should have excellent people skills, a solid understanding of business and organizational behavior, the ability to work in teams, and good presentation skills.
 

246. 

After two years of study in a CIS program, students may receive an associate’s degree.
 

247. 

Some Web sites specialize in helping people find jobs.
 

248. 

Computer professionals with common interests and a desire to extend their proficiency have formed computer-related professional organizations to share their knowledge.
 

249. 

Some certification training centers offer a guarantee for their programs and provide discounts, or even free sessions, for individuals who have completed their programs yet do not pass a test.
 

250. 

Obtaining an end-user certification is worthless to anyone who works in the computer industry.
 



 
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