CIS120 Final Sample

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____	1.	_____ is a category of output that includes memorandum, letters, announcements, press releases, and reports.
a.	Text	c.	Audio	
b.	Graphics	d.	Video	

____	2.	_____ is a category of output that includes prerecorded news reports, movies, and performances.
a.	Text	c.	Audio	
b.	Graphics	d.	Video	

____	3.	Two types of display devices are _____ displays.
a.	ink-jet and laser	c.	impact and nonimpact	
b.	CRT and flat-panel	d.	label and postage	

____	4.	Setting a monitor to display a higher resolution uses a _____.
a.	smaller number of pixels and thus provides a smoother image	
b.	smaller number of pixels and thus provides a rougher image	
c.	greater number of pixels and thus provides a smoother image	
d.	greater number of pixels and thus provides a rougher image	

____	5.	To be safe, all high-quality CRT monitors comply with _____ standards, which is a set of standards that defines acceptable levels of EMR for a monitor.
a.	MPR I	c.	CRT I	
b.	MPR II	d.	CRT II	

____	6.	An 8-bit video card (also called 8-bit color) uses 8 bits to store information about each pixel, and thus can display _____ different colors.
a.	8	c.	64	
b.	16	d.	256	

____	7.	Mobile computers, such as notebook computers and Tablet PCs, and mobile devices, such as PDAs and smart phones, often have _____ screens.
a.	LCD	c.	CRT	
b.	MICR	d.	HDTV	

____	8.	LCD monitors and LCD screens produce color using either _____ technology.
a.	CRT or gas plasma	c.	ink-jet or dot-matrix	
b.	impact or nonimpact	d.	passive matrix or active matrix	

____	9.	A _____ is a unit of visible light intensity equal to one candela (formerly called candlepower) per square meter.
a.	nit	c.	cit	
b.	bit	d.	hit	

____	10.	Newer video cards have _____ ports, some of which send both digital and analog signals to a monitor.
a.	CRT	c.	DVI	
b.	LCD	d.	MPR	

____	11.	When compared to flat panel monitors, gas plasma displays offer _____ expensive.
a.	smaller screen sizes and lower display quality and are much less	
b.	smaller screen sizes and lower display quality but are much more	
c.	larger screen sizes and higher display quality but are much more	
d.	larger screen sizes and higher display quality and are much less	

____	12.	Uses of interactive TV include _____.
a.	selecting a movie from a central library of movies	
b.	voting or responding to a network questionnaire	
c.	banking and shopping	
d.	all of the above	

____	13.	All of the following usually use portrait orientation except _____.
a.	spreadsheets	c.	reports	
b.	letters	d.	books	

____	14.	A printer connects by a cable to a _____ port.
a.	serial port or IrDA	c.	FireWire or MIDI	
b.	parallel port or USB	d.	SCSI or Bluetooth	

____	15.	The speed of a dot-matrix printer is measured by the number of _____ it can print.
a.	characters per second (cps)	c.	pages per second (pps)	
b.	characters per minute (cpm)	d.	pages per minute (ppm)	

____	16.	A(n) _____ functions like a dot-matrix printer, except a series of print hammers moves back and forth horizontally at incredibly high speeds.
a.	ink-jet printer	c.	laser printer	
b.	shuttle-matrix printer	d.	band printer	

____	17.	Many inexpensive photo printers use _____ technology.
a.	ink-jet	c.	dot-matrix	
b.	laser	d.	thermal	

____	18.	A laser printer, such as that diagrammed in the accompanying figure, creates images using a laser beam and powdered ink, called _____.
a.	woofer	c.	toner	
b.	spoiler	d.	cracker	

____	19.	Dye-sublimation printers for the home or small business user typically print images in _____ than their professional counterparts.
a.	a wide range of sizes and are much faster	
b.	a wide range of sizes but are much slower	
c.	only one or two sizes but are much faster	
d.	only one or two sizes and are much slower	

____	20.	_____ software enables users to convert the image from a fax modem to text and then edit it.
a.	Optical mark recognition (OMR)	
b.	Optical character recognition (OCR)	
c.	Magnetic ink character recognition (MICR)	
d.	All of the above	

____	21.	Transfer rates for disks are stated in _____.
a.	KBps (kilobytes per second) and MBps (megabytes per second)	
b.	MBps (megabytes per second) and GBps (gigabytes per second)	
c.	GBps (gigabytes per second) and TBps (terabytes per second)	
d.	TBps (terabytes per second) and PBps (petabytes per second)	

____	22.	Today, the standard floppy disk is _____-inches wide and has a rigid plastic outer cover.
a.	8	c.	3.5	
b.	4.75	d.	5.25	

____	23.	To avoid damaging a floppy disk, do all of the following except _____.
a.	avoid exposing the disk to heat, cold, or magnetic fields	
b.	open the disk’s shutter and touch its recording surface	
c.	avoid contaminants such as dust, smoke, or salt air	
d.	keep the disk in a storage tray that allows it to stand vertically	

____	24.	A floppy disk drive _____.
a.	can read from a floppy disk only if the write-protect notch is open	
b.	can read from a floppy disk only if the write-protect notch is closed	
c.	can read from a floppy disk whether the write-protect notch is open or closed	
d.	cannot read from a floppy disk whether the write-protect notch is open or closed	

____	25.	Like _____, hard disks store data magnetically.
a.	floppy disks and Zip disks	c.	tape and DVDs	
b.	CDs and microfilm	d.	all of the above	

____	26.	If the computer contains only one hard disk, the operating system designates it as drive _____.
a.	A	c.	C	
b.	B	d.	D	

____	27.	While the computer is running, the platters in a hard disk (such as that shown in the accompanying figure) usually rotate at _____, which allows nearly instant access to all tracks and sectors.
a.	54 to 72 revolutions per minute (rpm)	
b.	5,400 to 7,200 revolutions per second (rps)	
c.	54 to 72 revolutions per hour (rph)	
d.	5,400 to 7,200 revolutions per minute (rpm)	

____	28.	A _____ occurs when a read/write head touches the surface of a hard disk platter, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, usually resulting in a loss of data and sometimes loss of the entire drive.
a.	disk crash	c.	drive crash	
b.	head crash	d.	data crash	

____	29.	A hard disk spins much _____.
a.	slower than a floppy disk and usually starts spinning only when it receives a read or write command	
b.	slower than a floppy disk but usually spins constantly	
c.	faster than a floppy disk but usually starts spinning only when it receives a read or write command	
d.	faster than a floppy disk and usually spins constantly	

____	30.	The drive designation of a CD or DVD drive usually _____.
a.	precedes alphabetically before that of all the hard disks and portable disks	
b.	comes alphabetically between that of the hard disks and portable disks	
c.	follows alphabetically after that of all the hard disks and portable disks	
d.	comes alphabetically between that of the portable disks and hard disks	

____	31.	A standard CD-ROM is called a _____ disc because manufacturers write all items on the disc at one time.
a.	multisession	c.	unisession	
b.	single-session	d.	compound-session	

____	32.	A typical CD-ROM holds from 650 MB to 1 GB of data, instructions, and information, which is equivalent to about _____ high-density 3.5-inch floppy disks.
a.	4.5	c.	450	
b.	45	d.	4500	

____	33.	Manufacturers measure the speed of all CD-ROM drives relative to the original CD-ROM drive, using an X to denote the original transfer rate of 150 _____.
a.	KBps (kilobytes per second)	c.	GBps (gigabytes per second)	
b.	MBps (megabytes per second)	d.	TBps (terabytes per second)	

____	34.	The storage capacity of a DVD-ROM is _____ that of a CD-ROM because images are stored at higher resolutions.
a.	greater than a CD-ROM, and a DVD-ROM’s quality far surpasses	
b.	less than a CD-ROM, but a DVD-ROM’s quality far surpasses	
c.	greater than a CD-ROM, but a DVD-ROM’s quality is far less than	
d.	less than a CD-ROM, and a DVD-ROM’s quality is far less than	

____	35.	One of the first storage media used with mainframe computers was _____.
a.	Zip disks	c.	optical disks	
b.	tape	d.	microfilm	

____	36.	Tape _____.
a.	no longer is used as a primary method of storage but is used most often for long-term storage and backup	
b.	is used as a primary method of storage and for long-term storage and backup	
c.	no longer is used for long-term storage and backup but is used most often as a primary method of storage	
d.	no longer is used as a primary method of storage or for long-term storage and backup	

____	37.	All of the following use direct access except _____.
a.	CDs and DVDs	c.	tape	
b.	Zip disks	d.	floppy disks and hard disks	

____	38.	The difference in size among Type I, Type II, and Type III PC Cards is their _____.
a.	diameter	c.	thickness	
b.	circumference	d.	all of the above	

____	39.	Miniature storage media are much smaller, lighter in weight, and _____.
a.	less portable than other storage media such as hard disks, and much more expensive	
b.	more portable than other storage media such as hard disks, but much more expensive	
c.	less portable than other storage media such as hard disks, but much more expensive	
d.	more portable than other storage media such as hard disks, and much less expensive	

____	40.	One popular use of _____ is to store a prepaid dollar amount, as in a prepaid telephone calling card.
a.	smart cards	c.	PC Cards	
b.	floppy disks	d.	hard disks	

____	41.	A cross-platform program is one that runs _____.
a.	only on one operating system	
b.	differently on every operating system	
c.	the same on multiple operating systems	
d.	differently on one operating system	

____	42.	With Windows XP, a warm boot can be performed by _____.
a.	pressing a combination of keyboard keys (CTRL+ALT+DEL)	
b.	selecting a button from a list in a dialog box	
c.	pressing the reset button on the computer	
d.	all of the above	

____	43.	During a cold boot on a personal computer, the POST (power-on self test) results are compared with data in a _____ chip.
a.	CMOS	c.	BIOS	
b.	UNIX	d.	SCSI	

____	44.	In Windows XP, the _____ contains a list of programs that open automatically when users boot the computer.
a.	Restore folder	c.	Swap folder	
b.	Startup folder	d.	Backup folder	

____	45.	In a _____, a user types commands or presses special keys on the keyboard (such as function keys or key combinations) to enter data and instructions.
a.	command-line interface	c.	performance-monitor interface	
b.	menu-driven interface	d.	graphical user interface (GUI)	

____	46.	Networks, midrange servers, mainframes, and supercomputers allow hundreds to thousands of people to connect at the same time, and thus are _____.
a.	single user	c.	multiuser	
b.	single processing	d.	multiprocessing	

____	47.	With virtual memory, which is illustrated in the accompanying figure, a _____ is the amount of data and program instructions that can swap at a given time.
a.	log	c.	spool	
b.	page	d.	boot	

____	48.	With virtual memory, which is illustrated in the accompanying figure, the technique of swapping items between memory and storage, called _____, is a time consuming process for the computer.
a.	logging	c.	spooling	
b.	paging	d.	booting	

____	49.	With virtual memory, which is illustrated in the accompanying figure, when an operating system spends much of its time paging, instead of executing application software, it is said to be _____.
a.	zipping	c.	restoring	
b.	compressing	d.	thrashing	

____	50.	_____ is the process of encoding data and information into an unreadable form.
a.	Encryption	c.	Transmission	
b.	Formatting	d.	Spooling	

____	51.	Windows XP includes a file manager called _____.
a.	Windows Picture and Fax Viewer	c.	DriveSpace	
b.	Windows Explorer	d.	Dr. Watson	

____	52.	Windows XP includes the diagnostic utility, _____, which diagnoses problems as well as suggests courses of action.
a.	Windows Picture and Fax Viewer	c.	DriveSpace	
b.	Windows Explorer	d.	Dr. Watson	

____	53.	When first developed by Microsoft, _____ used a command-line interface, but later versions included both command-line and menu driven user interfaces.
a.	Windows XP	c.	Mac OS X	
b.	DOS	d.	UNIX	

____	54.	_____ is an upgrade to Windows 2000 Professional.
a.	Windows XP Home Edition	c.	Windows XP Professional	
b.	Windows XP Tablet PC Edition	d.	Windows XP 64-Bit Edition	

____	55.	_____ is designed for workstations that use an Itanium 2 processor.
a.	Windows XP Home Edition	c.	Windows XP Professional	
b.	Windows XP Tablet PC Edition	d.	Windows XP 64-Bit Edition	

____	56.	_____ includes features from previous Apple computer operating systems, such as large photo-quality icons, built-in networking support, and enhanced speech recognition.
a.	DOS	c.	Linux	
b.	UNIX	d.	Mac OS X	

____	57.	Like Linux, _____ is a multipurpose operating system because it is both a stand-alone and network operating system.
a.	NetWare	c.	Mac OS X	
b.	UNIX	d.	Windows XP	

____	58.	With _____, which is designed for smart phones, users input data by pressing keys on the keypad or keyboard, touching the screen, writing on the screen with a small stylus, or speaking into the smart phone.
a.	Palm OS	c.	Windows Mobile 2003	
b.	Symbian OS	d.	Windows CE .NET	

____	59.	A _____ does not replicate itself to other computers.
a.	virus	c.	Trojan horse	
b.	worm	d.	all of the above	

____	60.	Compressing files _____ system performance.
a.	demands extra room on the storage media and impairs	
b.	demands extra room on the storage media but improves	
c.	frees up room on the storage media but impairs	
d.	frees up room on the storage media and improves	

____	61.	The _____ is the destructive event or prank a malicious-logic program is intended to deliver.
a.	zombie	c.	cracker	
b.	hash	d.	payload	

____	62.	Computer viruses, worms, and Trojan horses deliver their payload on a computer when a user _____.
a.	opens an infected file	
b.	runs an infected program	
c.	boots the computer with an infected disk in a disk drive	
d.	all of the above	

____	63.	Some viruses are hidden in _____, which are instructions saved in an application such as a word processing or spreadsheet program.
a.	macros	c.	cookies	
b.	logs	d.	spikes	

____	64.	A _____ is a separate area of a hard disk that holds an infected file until the infection can be removed.
a.	quarantine	c.	firewall	
b.	payload	d.	honeypot	

____	65.	A honeypot is a program designed to _____.
a.	negatively affect the way a computer works	
b.	entice an intruder to hack into a computer	
c.	identify and remove computer viruses found in memory	
d.	secretly collect information about a user	

____	66.	Some notebook computers use _____ as methods of security.
a.	passwords	c.	biometrics	
b.	possessed objects	d.	all of the above	

____	67.	In its simplest form, a(n) _____ is a programmed formula that the recipient of encrypted data uses to decrypt the ciphertext.
a.	encryption key	c.	digital certificate	
b.	virus signature	d.	session cookie	

____	68.	When a mobile user connects to a main office using a standard Internet connection, a _____ provides the mobile user with a secure connection to the company network server.
a.	value added network (VAN)	c.	virtual private network (VPN)	
b.	local area network (LAN)	d.	wide area network (WAN)	

____	69.	A momentary overvoltage, called a _____, occurs when the increase in power lasts for less than one millisecond (one thousandth of a second).
a.	Joule	c.	hash	
b.	spike	d.	macro	

____	70.	A UPS connects between a computer and a _____.
a.	peripheral device	c.	communications device	
b.	disk drive	d.	power supply	

____	71.	The computer that a hacker uses to execute a DoS or DDoS attack, known as a _____, is completely unaware that it is being used to attack other systems.
a.	cookie	c.	zombie	
b.	proxy	d.	standby	

____	72.	_____, which allows users to choose an encryption scheme that passes between a client and a server, requires that both the client and server have digital certificates.
a.	Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)	
b.	Secure HTTP (S-HTTP)	
c.	Secure Electronics Transactions (SET) Specifications	
d.	Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)	

____	73.	To make personal data more private, users should do all of the following except _____.
a.	install a cookie manager to manage cookies	
b.	avoid shopping club and buyer cards	
c.	fill in only necessary information on rebate, warranty, and registration forms	
d.	purchase goods with credit or checks, rather than cash	

____	74.	A _____ is a small text file that a Web server stores on a user’s computer.
a.	worm	c.	cookie	
b.	spike	d.	payload	

____	75.	_____, like that shown in the accompanying figure, is an unsolicited e-mail message or newsgroup posting sent to many recipients or newsgroups at once.
a.	Hash	c.	Worm	
b.	Spam	d.	Spike	

____	76.	To avoid spam like that shown in the accompanying figure, users can sign up for _____, which is a service form an Internet service provider that blocks e-mail messages from designated sources.
a.	an anti-spam program	c.	an antivirus program	
b.	e-mail encryption	d.	e-mail filtering	

____	77.	To prevent repetitive strain injury, take all of the following precautions except _____.
a.	place a wrist rest between the keyboard and the edge of the desk	
b.	use the heel of the hand as a pivot point while typing or using the mouse	
c.	place the mouse at least six inches from the edge of the desk	
d.	minimize the number of switches between the mouse and the keyboard	

____	78.	_____ is an applied science devoted to incorporating comfort, efficiency, and safety into the design of items in the workplace.
a.	Ergonomics	c.	Epidemics	
b.	Eurhythmics	d.	Econometrics	

____	79.	Users should be sure their CRT monitor adheres to the _____, which defines acceptable levels of radiation.
a.	CPS II standard	c.	CVS II standard	
b.	MSD II standard	d.	MPR II standard	

____	80.	Personal computers, display devices, and printers should comply with guidelines of the _____ program.
a.	ENERGY STAR	c.	ACCEPTABLE USE	
b.	SECURE ELECTRONICS	d.	GREEN COMPUTING	

____	81.	Programmers use a variety of programming languages to write, or _____, a program.
a.	compile	c.	interpret	
b.	code	d.	execute	

____	82.	In some cases, an assembly language uses a type of _____ to generate the many machine language instructions for a single assembly language instruction.
a.	bug	c.	macro	
b.	script	d.	tag	

____	83.	With a procedural language, often called a _____, a programmer uses a series of English-like words to write instructions.
a.	first-generation language (1GL)	c.	third-generation language (3GL)	
b.	second-generation language (2GL)	d.	fourth-generation language (4GL)	

____	84.	Naval officer _____, a pioneer in computer programming, was a prime developer of COBOL.
a.	Grace Hopper	c.	Dennis Ritchie	
b.	John Kemeny	d.	Bjarne Sroustrup	

____	85.	_____ is a set of technologies by Sun Microsystems that allows programmers to develop and deploy Web services for an enterprise.
a.	JIT (Java Instruction Technology)	
b.	JavaScript	
c.	J2EE (Java 2 Platform Enterprise Edition)	
d.	JavaBuilder	

____	86.	The purpose of _____ is to take the complexity out of C++ .NET 2003 and still provide an object-oriented programming language.
a.	Visual C* .NET 2003	c.	Visual C+ .NET 2003	
b.	Visual C# .NET 2003	d.	Visual C? .NET 2003	

____	87.	In an application generator, a _____ is a window on the screen that provides areas for entering or changing data in a database.
a.	counter	c.	form	
b.	report writer	d.	menu generator	

____	88.	The designers of Web pages, known as _____, use a variety of techniques to develop Web pages.
a.	Web page authors	c.	Webmasters	
b.	Web administrators	d.	Web programmers	

____	89.	A(n) _____ is a compiled program that runs on the client.
a.	script	c.	applet	
b.	servlet	d.	image map	

____	90.	Typically, Web pages created with DHTML are _____ to user interaction.
a.	less animated and responsive	c.	more animated but less responsive	
b.	less animated but more responsive	d.	more animated and responsive	

____	91.	_____, from Click2learn, Inc., is a multimedia authoring program that has a graphical user interface and uses an object-oriented approach, so developers can design multimedia applications using basic objects.
a.	Producer	c.	Director	
b.	ToolBook	d.	Authorware	

____	92.	_____, from Macromedia, is a multimedia authoring program that provides tools developers need to build interactive training and educational programs.
a.	Producer	c.	Director	
b.	ToolBook	d.	Authorware	

____	93.	_____, from Macromedia, is a popular multimedia authoring program with powerful features and a built-in object-oriented scripting language, called Lingo, that allow developers to create highly interactive multimedia applications.
a.	Producer	c.	Director	
b.	ToolBook	d.	Authorware	

____	94.	In sequence, the program development cycle consists of six steps: _____.
a.	validate design, test solution, design solution, implement design, analyze requirements, and document solution	
b.	implement design, document solution, test solution, validate design, design solution, and analyze requirements	
c.	analyze requirements, design solution, validate design, implement design, test solution, and document solution	
d.	test solution, analyze requirements, document solution, implement design, validate design, and design solution	

____	95.	The _____ step of the programming development cycle consists of three major tasks: (1) review the requirements, (2) meet with the systems analysts and users, and (3) identify input, output, processing, and data components.
a.	analysis	c.	test	
b.	documentation	d.	implementation	

____	96.	In object-oriented (OO) design, the concept of packaging data and procedures into a single object is called _____.
a.	validation	c.	verification	
b.	encapsulation	d.	consolidation	

____	97.	A _____ shows one or more actions following each other in order.
a.	sequence control structure	c.	repetition control structure	
b.	selection control structure	d.	compliance control structure	

____	98.	A _____, which is illustrated in the accompanying figure, tells the program which action to take, based on a certain condition.
a.	sequence control structure	c.	repetition control structure	
b.	selection control structure	d.	compliance control structure	

____	99.	The _____ tests a condition at the end of the loop and continues looping until the condition is true — and then stops.
a.	if-then-else control structure	c.	do-while control structure	
b.	case control structure	d.	do-until control structure	

____	100.	Syntax errors will be caused by all of the following except _____.
a.	misspelling a command	c.	typing command words out of order	
b.	leaving out required punctuation	d.	using the wrong control structure	

____	101.	The Information Technology Association of America estimates that the current computer workforce is about _____ new computer-related jobs available annually.
a.	100,000 workers with an expected net increase of about 860	
b.	1 million workers with an expected net increase of about 8,600	
c.	10 million workers with an expected net increase of about 86,000	
d.	100 million workers with an expected net increase of about 8.6 million	

____	102.	Jobs in the _____ include designing and fabricating computer chips, testing internal components, assembling computers, and packing computers and peripherals.
a.	computer equipment industry	
b.	computer software industry	
c.	computer service and repair industry	
d.	computer education and training industry	

____	103.	Leading software companies include all of the following except _____.
a.	Computer Associates and Macromedia	
b.	Oracle and Novell	
c.	AMD and Logitech	
d.	Sybase and Symantec	

____	104.	Typical jobs for workers in the _____ include service technician, computer repair person, repair technician, and computer technician.
a.	computer equipment industry	
b.	computer software industry	
c.	computer service and repair industry	
d.	computer education and training industry	

____	105.	For a sales representative, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, strong _____ skills are important, including a strong listening ability and good oral communication skills.
a.	mathematical	c.	analytical	
b.	artistic	d.	people	

____	106.	_____, which is a main area of an IT department, analyzes, designs, develops, and implements new information technology and improves existing systems.
a.	Technical services	
b.	System development and programming	
c.	End-user computing	
d.	Management	

____	107.	Job titles in the management area of an IT department include all of the following except _____.
a.	project leader	c.	project manager	
b.	desktop publisher	d.	e-commerce administrator	

____	108.	A _____ installs, configures, and maintains LANs, WANs, intranets, and Internet systems.
a.	network administrator	c.	project manager	
b.	software engineer	d.	data communications analyst	

____	109.	A _____ works with the analyst, programmer, and user to create system documentation and user materials.
a.	desktop publisher	c.	technical writer	
b.	computer operator	d.	graphic designer/illustrator	

____	110.	Job titles in the technical services area of an IT department include all of the following except _____.
a.	database administrator	c.	Web graphic designer	
b.	graphic designer/illustrator	d.	e-commerce administrator	

____	111.	Entry-level jobs for graduating _____ students include applications programmer, graphic designer, Web programmer, technical writer, computer operator, computer technician, help desk specialist, computer sales representative, and computer consultant.
a.	computer information systems (CIS)	c.	computer science (CS)	
b.	software engineering (SE)	d.	computer engineering (CE)	

____	112.	Entry-level jobs for graduating _____ students include database analyst, software engineer, systems programmer, computer technician, and computer consultant.
a.	computer engineering (CE)	c.	computer technology (CT)	
b.	computer science (CS)	d.	computer information systems (CIS)	

____	113.	Entry-level jobs for graduating _____ students include software engineer, network security specialist, computer technician, and computer consultant.
a.	computer information systems (CIS)	c.	computer engineering (CE)	
b.	computer technology (CT)	d.	computer science (CS)	

____	114.	When choosing a certification, computer users should do all of the following except _____.
a.	consider their career path during the long term	
b.	rely on the advice of people in unrelated fields	
c.	assess their background and experience	
d.	research certifications to find those that best match their needs	

____	115.	Many _____ classes for certification are available on the Internet and by many companies that have set up intranets within their organizations.
a.	self-study	c.	instructor-led training	
b.	online training	d.	Web resource	

____	116.	If a certification exam is not passed, the test-taker must _____.
a.	pay the fee again to retake the test	c.	never take the test again	
b.	immediately retake the test at no cost	d.	complete a remedial course of study	

____	117.	People who may be interested in _____ include computer consultants, hardware technicians, help desk operators, network security specialists, and system administrators.
a.	database system certification	c.	operating system certification	
b.	programming certification	d.	Internet certification	

____	118.	People who may be interested in _____ include Java programmers, Oracle database managers, programming consultants, SQL programmers, and Web page designers.
a.	Internet certification	c.	application software certification	
b.	networking certification	d.	programming certification	

____	119.	_____ is a certification that tests advanced knowledge of installing, configuring, and operating LANs and WANs.
a.	Certified Internet Webmaster (CIW)	
b.	IBM eServer Certified Specialist	
c.	Certified Web Professional (CWP)	
d.	Cisco Certified Network Professional (CCNP)	

____	120.	People who might be interested in _____ include database administrators, database analysts, database application developers, database designers.
a.	networking certification	c.	hardware certification	
b.	operating systems certification	d.	database system certification	

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.

____	121.	Computers process output (information) into input (data).

____	122.	The viewable size of a monitor is the diagonal measurement from one corner of the casing to the other.

____	123.	A flat CRT monitor screen increases glare, reflection, and distortion of images.

____	124.	To protect against EMR (electromagnetic radiation), sit at an arm’s length from a CRT monitor because EMR only travels a short distance.

____	125.	To display high-quality color on a CRT monitor that uses an analog signal to produce an image, a desktop computer sends a signal through a video card on the motherboard.

____	126.	Both the video card and the monitor must support the same video standard to generate a desired resolution and number of colors.

____	127.	The memory in a video card stores information about each pixel.

____	128.	A video card’s processor and memory chips generate very little heat.

____	129.	The lower the time in milliseconds it takes to turn a pixel on or off on an LCD monitor, the slower the response time.

____	130.	Developed by the Digital Display Working Group (DDWG), a DVI port accepts digital signals directly, eliminating the need for the analog to digital conversion.

____	131.	The lower the dpi (dots per inch) an ink-jet printer can output, the better the print quality.

____	132.	Laser printers for large business users print less than 15 ppm (pages per minute).

____	133.	When a laser printer is purchased, it comes with at least one of two common page description languages: PCL or PostScript.

____	134.	Lower-end dye-sublimation printers cost less than a photo printer based on ink-jet technology, but usually more than $1,000.

____	135.	Some plotters and large-format printers use individual sheets of paper, while others take large rolls.

____	136.	Users can convert existing printers and devices into Bluetooth devices with a Bluetooth wireless port adapter or a Bluetooth card, which plugs into a USB port or parallel port.

____	137.	Few speakers have tone and volume controls, preventing users from adjusting the settings.

____	138.	A stand-alone fax machine scans an original document, converts the image into digitized data, and transmits the digitized data.

____	139.	Many computers include fax capability by using a fax modem.

____	140.	Hearing-impaired users can instruct programs to display words instead of sounds.

____	141.	The access time of storage devices is fast compared with the access time of memory.

____	142.	Users work with floppy disks to transport small files to and from non-networked personal computers.

____	143.	Disk manufacturers state that a floppy disk can last more than 70 years, with reasonable care.

____	144.	On a floppy disk, if the write-protect notch is open, the drive can write on the floppy disk.

____	145.	Today’s hard disks have enough storage capacity for the most complex multimedia software.

____	146.	Hard disks are read/write storage media, meaning that users can read from and write on a hard disk any number of times.

____	147.	A typical hard disk has multiple platters stacked on top of one another.

____	148.	When a program needs data, instructions, or information, the processor checks the disk cache.

____	149.	Almost no current disk drives work with any amount of cache because it has no affect on disk access times.

____	150.	A low-powered laser light creates the pits on a CD or DVD, and a higher-powered laser light reads items from the disc by reflecting light through the top of the disc.

____	151.	Faster CD-ROM drives are less expensive than slower drives.

____	152.	Most professional desktop publishing software reads the PhotoCD format.

____	153.	Unlike CD-R or CD-RW drives, users record, or write, their own data on standard CD-ROM drives.

____	154.	Some operating systems, such as Windows XP, include the capability of burning discs.

____	155.	A popular use of CD-RW and CD-R discs is to create audio CDs.

____	156.	Movies on DVD have a grainy-quality video, which is far inferior to VHS tapes.

____	157.	Instead of DVD+RW or DVD+RAM, most users work with DVD-R.

____	158.	Some personal computers have external tape units.

____	159.	Depending on the device, manufacturers claim miniature mobile storage media can last from 10 to 100 years.

____	160.	To view, edit, or print images and information stored on miniature storage media, its contents must be transferred to a desktop computer or other device.

____	161.	System software serves as the interface between the user, the application software, and the computer’s hardware.

____	162.	In most cases, the operating system is installed and resides on a computer’s floppy disk.

____	163.	When purchasing application software, users must ensure that it works with the operating system installed on their computer.

____	164.	Regardless of the size of the computer, most operating systems provide similar functions.

____	165.	A cold boot is the process of restarting a computer that already is powered on.

____	166.	Some parts of the operating system are nonresident, that is, these instructions remain on the hard disk until they are needed.

____	167.	In case of computer failure, it is crucial to have a recovery disk available and ready for use.

____	168.	Menu-driven interfaces are more difficult to learn than command-line interfaces because users have to learn the rules of entering commands.

____	169.	Most users today work with a graphical user interface.

____	170.	As with parallel processing, multiprocessing increases a computer’s processing speed.

____	171.	By spooling print jobs to a buffer, a processor can continue interpreting and executing instructions while a printer prints.

____	172.	Today, installing a new hardware device is more difficult because few devices or operating systems support Plug and Play.

____	173.	For each user, a network administrator establishes a user account, which enables the user to access, or log on, to a computer or to a network.

____	174.	Network administrators usually set up a network to encrypt data as it travels over a network to prevent unauthorized users from reading the data.

____	175.	An uninstaller deletes files and folders from the hard disk, as well as removes program entries from the system files.

____	176.	Windows Small Business Server 2003 is designed for large businesses with more than 75 users and unlimited networking expertise.

____	177.	Windows CE .NET is a GUI that supports color, sound, multitasking, multimedia, e-mail, Internet access, and Web browsing.

____	178.	Stand-alone utilities typically offer improvements over those features built-in to an operating system or provide features not included in an operating system.

____	179.	Personal firewall programs often are sold as part of an Internet utility suite.

____	180.	A compressed file takes up more storage space than the original file.

____	181.	Today, the most common way computers become infected with viruses, worms, and Trojan horses is through users opening infected e-mail attachments.

____	182.	Malicious-logic programs have been eliminated in recent years.

____	183.	Most antivirus programs also protect against worms and Trojan horses.

____	184.	A company’s AUP (acceptable use policy) should specify the acceptable use of computers by employees for personal reasons.

____	185.	Many systems implement access controls using a two-phase process called identification and authentication.

____	186.	Most systems require that users select their own passwords.

____	187.	Longer passwords provide less security than shorter ones.

____	188.	Possessed objects often are used in combination with personal identification numbers.

____	189.	Thieves often target notebook computers of company executives, so they can use the stolen computer to access confidential company information illegally.

____	190.	According to a major survey, information theft is one of the “Top Ten Security Threats Facing Corporate America.”

____	191.	In the encryption process, the encrypted (scrambled) data is called plaintext.

____	192.	Many mobile users today access their company networks through a virtual private network.

____	193.	Typically, the amount of protection offered by a surge protector is inversely proportional to its cost; that is, the more expensive, the less protection the protector offers.

____	194.	Many surge protectors include plug-ins for telephone line and other cables.

____	195.	Many browsers offer 128-bit encryption, which is a lower level of protection than 40-bit encryption because it has a shorter encryption key.

____	196.	The National Photographers Association believes that allowing even the slightest alteration could lead to misrepresentations in photographs.

____	197.	Online shopping sites generally use a session cookie to keep track of items in a user’s shopping cart.

____	198.	The advantage of e-mail filters and anti-spam programs is that they never remove valid e-mail messages.

____	199.	People who spend their workday using a computer sometimes complain of lower back pain, muscle fatigue, and emotional fatigue.

____	200.	Computer addiction is an untreatable illness.

____	201.	A machine-dependent language can run on many different types of computers and operating systems.

____	202.	Coding in a machine language is tedious and time consuming.

____	203.	A computer can execute an assembly source program.

____	204.	An interpreter is a separate program that converts an entire source program into machine language before executing it.

____	205.	Interpreted programs run faster than compiled programs because an interpreter does not have to translate the source program to machine language each time the program executes.

____	206.	Many programming languages include both an interpreter and a compiler.

____	207.	The first step in building a Visual Basic .NET 2003 program is to generate and test the final program.

____	208.	Programmers use PowerBuilder to develop small- and medium-scale client/server applications.

____	209.	HTML is a programming language.

____	210.	As with JavaScript, Web page developers embed VBScript code directly into an HTML document.

____	211.	Because Perl has weak text processing capabilities, it has become an unpopular language for writing scripts.

____	212.	The program development cycle guides information technology (IT) professionals through the development of an information system.

____	213.	Program development is an ongoing process within system development.

____	214.	The program development cycle begins at the start of the planning phase in the system development cycle.

____	215.	Determining the logic for a program always is a programmer’s least challenging task.

____	216.	Structured design provides a way to keep the data and the program (or procedure) together.

____	217.	Many programmers refer to the repetition construct as a loop.

____	218.	A logic error occurs when the code violates the syntax, or grammar, of the programming language.

____	219.	Extreme programming essentially eliminates the design solution and validate design steps of the traditional program development cycle.

____	220.	Proper documentation greatly increases the amount of time a new programmer spends learning about existing programs.

____	221.	According to the United States Department of Education, more than 50 percent of college students are graduating with degrees in computer-related fields.

____	222.	Nearly every organization uses computers for basic document preparation.

____	223.	The software industry is small, with annual sales below $2 million.

____	224.	Being a computer technician is a challenging job for people who like to troubleshoot and solve problems and have a strong background in electronics.

____	225.	The shortage of college level instructors in computer education will end in the near future because the supply of educators with Ph.D. degrees is exceeding the demand.

____	226.	Corporations usually require more educational background from trainers than educational institutions do from instructors.

____	227.	Computer consultants not only must have strong technical skills in their specialized area, but also they must have the people skills necessary to communicate their suggestions effectively to their clients.

____	228.	The employees in an IT department work together as a team to meet the information requirements of their organization.

____	229.	In addition to computer-related skills, CIS majors should have excellent people skills, a solid understanding of business and organizational behavior, the ability to work in teams, and good presentation skills.

____	230.	Many companies list their job openings, internship opportunities, and career opportunities on their Web sites.

____	231.	The computer-related industry is one of the less fluid parts of today’s marketplace.

____	232.	Numerous computer publications can help an individual keep up with changes in the computer industry.

____	233.	Computer workshops and seminars usually last one or two years.

____	234.	Although it may not give the IT professional reassurance, certification guarantees job security.

____	235.	If someone is new to the computer field, it is best to start with a specific, higher-level certification.

____	236.	A certification sponsor’s Web site generally contains descriptions of available certifications, with frequently asked questions (FAQs) and links to authorized training and testing centers.

____	237.	At the testing centers, certification examinations are taken using computers, which process the results as a test is taken.

____	238.	With computerized adaptive testing (CAT), the number and order of the test questions are modified to correspond to each individual’s progress and demonstrated ability.

____	239.	Adobe Certified Expert (ACE) is an application software certification sponsored by Adobe Systems that tests a user’s expertise on Adobe software.

____	240.	Internet certifications cover technology often used by an Internet service provider or a large company developing an intranet.

CIS120 Final Sample
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

	1.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Primary	REF:	292	OBJ:	1

	2.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Primary	REF:	293	OBJ:	1

	3.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Primary	REF:	294	OBJ:	2

	4.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Primary	REF:	296	OBJ:	2

	5.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	296	OBJ:	2

	6.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Primary	REF:	297	OBJ:	3

	7.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	300	OBJ:	4

	8.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	301	OBJ:	4

	9.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	301	OBJ:	4

	10.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	301	OBJ:	4

	11.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Primary	REF:	302	OBJ:	4

	12.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Primary	REF:	302	OBJ:	4

	13.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	303	OBJ:	5

	14.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Primary	REF:	304	OBJ:	5

	15.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Primary	REF:	304	OBJ:	5

	16.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	305	OBJ:	5

	17.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Primary	REF:	308	OBJ:	6

	18.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	310	OBJ:	6

	19.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	310	OBJ:	6

	20.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	316	OBJ:	9

	21.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	351	OBJ:	2

	22.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Primary	REF:	351	OBJ:	3

	23.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Primary	REF:	354	OBJ:	3

	24.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Primary	REF:	354	OBJ:	3

	25.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Primary	REF:	356	OBJ:	5

	26.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Primary	REF:	356	OBJ:	5

	27.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	357	OBJ:	5

	28.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	358	OBJ:	5

	29.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Primary	REF:	358	OBJ:	5

	30.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	361	OBJ:	7

	31.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	363	OBJ:	8

	32.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Primary	REF:	364	OBJ:	8

	33.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Primary	REF:	364	OBJ:	8

	34.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Primary	REF:	368	OBJ:	8

	35.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Primary	REF:	370	OBJ:	9

	36.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Primary	REF:	370	OBJ:	9

	37.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	370	OBJ:	9

	38.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Primary	REF:	371	OBJ:	10

	39.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	373	OBJ:	10

	40.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Primary	REF:	374	OBJ:	10

	41.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	393	OBJ:	1

	42.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Primary	REF:	394	OBJ:	2

	43.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	396	OBJ:	2

	44.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	396	OBJ:	2

	45.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	398	OBJ:	3

	46.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	400	OBJ:	3

	47.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	401	OBJ:	3

	48.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	401	OBJ:	3

	49.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	401	OBJ:	3

	50.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	405	OBJ:	4

	51.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	406	OBJ:	5

	52.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	408	OBJ:	5

	53.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Primary	REF:	410	OBJ:	6

	54.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	412	OBJ:	6

	55.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	412	OBJ:	6

	56.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Primary	REF:	413	OBJ:	6

	57.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	415	OBJ:	7

	58.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	417	OBJ:	8

	59.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Primary	REF:	418	OBJ:	9

	60.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	419	OBJ:	9

	61.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	569	OBJ:	2

	62.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Primary	REF:	570	OBJ:	2

	63.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	571	OBJ:	2

	64.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Primary	REF:	572	OBJ:	2

	65.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	576	OBJ:	3

	66.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	580	OBJ:	4

	67.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	583	OBJ:	6

	68.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	583	OBJ:	6

	69.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	584	OBJ:	7

	70.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Primary	REF:	585	OBJ:	7

	71.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	587	OBJ:	9

	72.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	588	OBJ:	9

	73.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	592	OBJ:	11

	74.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Primary	REF:	593	OBJ:	11

	75.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Primary	REF:	595	OBJ:	11

	76.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Primary	REF:	595	OBJ:	11

	77.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	599	OBJ:	12

	78.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	600	OBJ:	12

	79.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	600	OBJ:	12

	80.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	601	OBJ:	12

	81.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	664	OBJ:	1

	82.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	666	OBJ:	1

	83.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Primary	REF:	666	OBJ:	2

	84.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	668	OBJ:	2

	85.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	670	OBJ:	4

	86.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Primary	REF:	673	OBJ:	3

	87.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	675	OBJ:	5

	88.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	678	OBJ:	6

	89.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Primary	REF:	679	OBJ:	6

	90.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Primary	REF:	682	OBJ:	6

	91.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Primary	REF:	684	OBJ:	7

	92.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Primary	REF:	684	OBJ:	7

	93.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Primary	REF:	684	OBJ:	7

	94.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Primary	REF:	686	OBJ:	8

	95.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	687	OBJ:	8

	96.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	689	OBJ:	9

	97.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	690	OBJ:	10

	98.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	690	OBJ:	10

	99.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	691	OBJ:	10

	100.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Primary	REF:	696	OBJ:	8

	101.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	766	OBJ:	1

	102.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Primary	REF:	769	OBJ:	1

	103.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Primary	REF:	770	OBJ:	1

	104.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Primary	REF:	770	OBJ:	1

	105.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Primary	REF:	770	OBJ:	1

	106.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	772	OBJ:	2

	107.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	772	OBJ:	2

	108.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Primary	REF:	772	OBJ:	2

	109.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Primary	REF:	772	OBJ:	2

	110.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	773	OBJ:	2

	111.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Primary	REF:	775	OBJ:	3

	112.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Primary	REF:	775	OBJ:	3

	113.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Primary	REF:	776	OBJ:	3

	114.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Primary	REF:	783	OBJ:	5

	115.	ANS:	B	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	784	OBJ:	6

	116.	ANS:	A	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	785	OBJ:	6

	117.	ANS:	C	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	786	OBJ:	7

	118.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	787	OBJ:	7

	119.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	788	OBJ:	8

	120.	ANS:	D	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	789	OBJ:	7

TRUE/FALSE

	121.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	292	OBJ:	1

	122.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	295	OBJ:	2

	123.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	295	OBJ:	2

	124.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	296	OBJ:	2

	125.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	297	OBJ:	3

	126.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	298	OBJ:	3

	127.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	298	OBJ:	3

	128.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	298	OBJ:	3

	129.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	301	OBJ:	4

	130.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	301	OBJ:	4

	131.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	306	OBJ:	6

	132.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	309	OBJ:	6

	133.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	309	OBJ:	6

	134.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	310	OBJ:	6

	135.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	312	OBJ:	6

	136.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	312	OBJ:	7

	137.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	313	OBJ:	8

	138.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	315	OBJ:	9

	139.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	315	OBJ:	9

	140.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	319	OBJ:	10

	141.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	350	OBJ:	2

	142.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	351	OBJ:	3

	143.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	354	OBJ:	3

	144.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	354	OBJ:	3

	145.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	355	OBJ:	5

	146.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	356	OBJ:	5

	147.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	357	OBJ:	5

	148.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	358	OBJ:	5

	149.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	359	OBJ:	5

	150.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	362	OBJ:	7

	151.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	364	OBJ:	8

	152.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	365	OBJ:	8

	153.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	366	OBJ:	8

	154.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	366	OBJ:	8

	155.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	366	OBJ:	8

	156.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	369	OBJ:	8

	157.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	369	OBJ:	8

	158.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	370	OBJ:	9

	159.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	372	OBJ:	10

	160.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	373	OBJ:	10

	161.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	392	OBJ:	1

	162.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	393	OBJ:	1

	163.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	393	OBJ:	1

	164.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	394	OBJ:	1

	165.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	394	OBJ:	2

	166.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	394	OBJ:	2

	167.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	397	OBJ:	2

	168.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	398	OBJ:	3

	169.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	398	OBJ:	3

	170.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	400	OBJ:	3

	171.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	401	OBJ:	3

	172.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	403	OBJ:	3

	173.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	404	OBJ:	4

	174.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	405	OBJ:	4

	175.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	406	OBJ:	5

	176.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	415	OBJ:	7

	177.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	416	OBJ:	8

	178.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	418	OBJ:	9

	179.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	419	OBJ:	9

	180.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	419	OBJ:	9

	181.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	570	OBJ:	2

	182.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	570	OBJ:	2

	183.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	571	OBJ:	2

	184.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	574	OBJ:	3

	185.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	576	OBJ:	3

	186.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	577	OBJ:	3

	187.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	577	OBJ:	3

	188.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	578	OBJ:	3

	189.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	579	OBJ:	4

	190.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	582	OBJ:	6

	191.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	582	OBJ:	6

	192.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	583	OBJ:	6

	193.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	585	OBJ:	7

	194.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	585	OBJ:	7

	195.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	587	OBJ:	9

	196.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	590	OBJ:	10

	197.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	593	OBJ:	11

	198.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	595	OBJ:	11

	199.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	599	OBJ:	12

	200.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	601	OBJ:	12

	201.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	664	OBJ:	1

	202.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	665	OBJ:	1

	203.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	666	OBJ:	1

	204.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	667	OBJ:	2

	205.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	668	OBJ:	2

	206.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	668	OBJ:	2

	207.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	672	OBJ:	3

	208.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	674	OBJ:	3

	209.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	679	OBJ:	6

	210.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	681	OBJ:	6

	211.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	681	OBJ:	6

	212.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	686	OBJ:	8

	213.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	686	OBJ:	8

	214.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	687	OBJ:	8

	215.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	688	OBJ:	8

	216.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	688	OBJ:	9

	217.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	691	OBJ:	10

	218.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	694	OBJ:	8

	219.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	695	OBJ:	8

	220.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	698	OBJ:	8

	221.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	766	OBJ:	1

	222.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	767	OBJ:	1

	223.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	770	OBJ:	1

	224.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	770	OBJ:	1

	225.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	771	OBJ:	1

	226.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	771	OBJ:	1

	227.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	771	OBJ:	1

	228.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	772	OBJ:	2

	229.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Primary	REF:	775	OBJ:	3

	230.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	776	OBJ:	3

	231.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	778	OBJ:	4

	232.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	778	OBJ:	4

	233.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	779	OBJ:	4

	234.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	782	OBJ:	5

	235.	ANS:	F	DIF:	Primary	REF:	784	OBJ:	5

	236.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	784	OBJ:	6

	237.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	785	OBJ:	6

	238.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	785	OBJ:	6

	239.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	786	OBJ:	8

	240.	ANS:	T	DIF:	Secondary	REF:	789	OBJ:	7